Èùåì ïðåäêîâ è ïîòîìêîâ â Ïîëüøå

Ñïàñèáî íî íå èìåþ íè÷åãî îáùåãî îñîáåííî ê âåðîèñïîâåäàíèþ. Ïîñìîòðèòå:
http://www.polishroots.org/herbarz/lubicz.htm
http://www.genealog.home.pl/g.pl?kd=4&hb=0031

à òàêæå ñëåäóþùåå:

It is not uncommon to find peasants or Jews bearing the same surnames borne
by noble families. Originally surnames were borne only by nobles, and those
referring to place names usually indicated the name of the family's estate.
Thus when the surname Nielawicki first developed, it would have been a short
way of saying "lord of Nielawice."

But as surnames spread throughout society, surnames derived from place names
gradually changed in meaning. What once meant "lord of Nielawice" came to
mean nothing more than "one from Nielawice." By the early 19th century, when
Jews were required to take surnames by law, it was simple and easy for them
to take obvious, sensible names. If a family came from Nielawice, chances
were they would decide to call themselves Nielawicki.

That is almost certainly the answer to your question. There is no reason to
assume any sort of connection between your Nielawicki family and that of
peasants or Jews named Nielawicki. In your family's case the name goes back
to the days when the family owned the estate at Nielawice. But as time went
on the name came to mean nothing more than "one from Nielawice," and the
name no longer indicated anything about the social status of those who bore
it. From the name alone there was no way to tell the descendants of noble
Nielawickis from the descendants of peasants and Jews who happened to have
been born in, or worked at, Nielawice.

Obviously the nobles who first bore these surnames were often very angry
when peasants and Jews began to bear them. But by then the society had
changed to the point that they could no longer do anything to stop it.

I hope this is some help to you, and wish you the best of luck with your
research.

William F. Hoffman
Author, _Polish Surnames: Origins & Meanings_

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